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prelims practice questions jan 8

prelims practice questions jan 8

  1. Consider the following statements regarding 'Government Owned Corporate Operated (GOCO)' mode, which is seen in the news recently 

  1. In GOCO model the assets owned by Govt will be operated by the private industries. 

  2. Shekatkar committee to enhance combat capability and rebalance defence expenditure of the armed forces, recommended GOCO model in defence sector. 

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2 

  4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (c)  Both 1 and 2

In News:Army gets working on Government Owned Contractor Operated model to improve efficiency - THE HINDU

Explanation:

The Committee of Experts (CoE) constituted by the Ministry of Defence under the chairmanship of Lt. Gen (Retd) DB Shekatkar to recommend measures to enhance combat capability and rebalance defence expenditure of the armed forces, submitted its report in December 2016.

The GOCO model was one of the recommendations of the committee to “enhance combat capability and re-balancing defence expenditure.

Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

On December 7, 2020, the Indian Army began its work on the GOCO (Government Owned Contractor Operated) Model. The model is extended to base workshops and ordnance depots. The workshops play a vital role as they ensure the Indian Army is operationally prepared all the time

  • The 'Government Owned Corporate Operated (GOCO)' model the assets owned by Govt will be operated by the private industry for agreed upon terms. The process of transfer of assets would have to be protracted with expertise being gradually absorbed by the private industry.Hence, Statement 1 is correct

  • The present infrastructure will require investment in upgrade of Plant and Machinery and training of employees.

  • The issue of criteria for selection of private partner for a particular segment say Tanks, Opto Electronics etc. The private sector may be able to partner with OEMs as a result the ABW will benefit from Transfer of Technology and upgrades.

  • Private companies will insist on the government rationalizing the workforce and replacement of Army personnel. There could be some disruptions in its equipment maintenance resources. 

  1. ‘Rarest of rare doctrine’ in capital punishment was brought in which of the following case judgement

  1. Macchi Singh vs State of Punjab

  2. Sher Singh vs. State of Punjab

  3. Bacchan Singh vs State of Punjab

  4. Mithu vs State of Punjab

Answer: (C)Bachhan Singh vs State of Punjab

Explanation:

In NEWS: 4 Nirbhaya case convicts to be hanged on Jan. 22 - THE HINDU

Jagmohan Singhv.State of U.P[x]: five-judge bench upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty and held that deprivation of life is constitutionally permissible for being recognized as a permissible punishment by the drafters of our Constitution.

Ediga Anammav.State of Andhra Pradesh[xii]which followed Justice Krishna Iyer commuted the death sentence to life imprisonment by citing factors like age, gender, socio-economic background and psychic compulsions of the accused. It was laid out in this case that apart from looking into the details of the crime and deciding based on the extent of violence committed the judges should also look into the criminal and his condition or haplessness while committing the crime.

Bachan SinghvState of Punjab[xvii]:This was the case that gave birth to the “rarest of the rare cases” doctrine and still remains one of the most important cases in this subject.Hence option (c)  is correct

Mithu v. State of Punjab[xx]was another case where the mandatory death sentence under Section 303 was declared unconstitutional and hence invalid. The judges in Mithu’s case held thatSection 303violated the Articles 14 and 21 of our Constitution and so it was deleted from the IPC.

T.V Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu[xxi]andSher Singh v. State of Punjab[xxii]the Supreme Court was faced with the question of delay in execution of the death sentence and whether a prolonged delay was reason enough to commute the death sentence to life imprisonment. While the first case laid down that such a situation gave reason enough for the convict to invoke section 21 and get the lesser punishment, the majority in the latter case differed on this point.

Macchi Singh v. State of Punjab[xxiii]in order to further elucidate the “rarest of the rare rule”, situations where the application of death sentence could be justified Justice M.P Thakkar gave the following illustrations: Manner of Commission of Murder, Motive for Commission of murder, Anti-Social or Socially abhorrent nature of the crime, Magnitude of Crime and The personality of the Victim of murder.

3.With respect to privilege motion, consider the following statements:

  1. The presiding officer must refer the privilege notice to the committee of privileges.

  2. Only incidents of recent occurrence can be raised.

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2 

  4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b)  2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: CPI MP submits privilege notice against Amit Shah - THE HINDU

Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.

The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrenceand should need the intervention of the House. Notices have to be given before 10 am to the Speaker or the Chairperson.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.

4.With respect to Quota for Economically weaker section ,consider the following statements

  1. It provides for reservation in both central and state government-run educational institutions and employment.

  2. EWS reservation is a horizontal reservation and not a vertical reservation.

  3. It was brought through 104th constitutional amendment act.

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1,2, and 3

  4. None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

Explanation:

In NEWS:Reservation ‘It is up to States to provide 10% quota - THE HINDU

The One Hundred and Third Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment)Act, 2019, introduces 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society for admission to Central Government-run educational institutions and private educational institutions (except for minority educational institutions), and for employment in Central Government jobs.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

 The Amendmentdoes not make such reservations mandatory in State Government-runeducational institutions or State Government jobs. However, some states have chosen to implement the 10% reservation for economically weaker sections.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

EWS is avertical reservationsince 10% has been allotted from the complete pie of 100%.Hence statement 2 is correct.

5. With respect to Agricultural Produce Market Committee(APMC), consider the following statements

  1. APMC is a marketing board is established by the Central government of India.

  2. The first sale of agriculture produce can occur only at the market yards (mandis) of APMC.

  3. Amendment to the Agriculture Produce Marketing (Development and Regulation) Act, 1963 was passed, which gave the government power to appoint four special invitees on every market committee whose income from fees levied and collection exceeded ₹5 crore. For APMCs with income up to ₹5 crore, the government could appoint two special invitees. 

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1,2 and 3 

Answer: b)2 and 3 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS:State reverses decision on APMCs - THE HINDU

An Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a marketing board established by astate governmentinIndiato ensure farmers are safeguarded from exploitation by large retailers, as well as ensuring the farm to retail price spread does not reach excessively high levels.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The first sale of agriculture produce can occur only at the market yards (mandis) of APMC.Hence statement 2 is correct.

The State cabinet on Tuesday reversed yet another decision of the previous government to appoint four technical experts on agriculture produce market committees (APMCs).  The Bharatiya Janata Party­led (BJP) government had brought in an amendment to the Agriculture Produce Marketing (Development and Regulation) Act, 1963, which gave the government power to appoint four special invitees on every market committee whose income from fees levied and collection exceeded ₹5 crore. For APMCs with income up to ₹5 crore, the government could appoint two special invitees.Hence statement 3 is correct.

6.Which of the following statements is/are correct about snakes,

  1. Venom are modified form of Saliva.

  2. Anti-venom are extracted from herbal plants

  3. Big 4 refers to poisonous snakes of India namely the Indian cobra, the common krait, Russell’s viper, and the saw ­scaled viper.

Select the correct option from below

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:Genome of Indian cobra sequenced - THE HINDU

Snake venomis a highly modified saliva containing zootoxins that facilitate the immobilization and digestion of prey, and defense against threats. It is injected by unique fangs during a bite, and some species are also able to spit their venom.Hence statement 1 is correct.

Antivenom is made by injecting a small amount of venom into an animal (usually a horse or sheep) to initiate an immune system response. The resulting antibodies are then harvested from the animal's blood.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Every year, approximately five million people worldwide are bitten by venomous snakes resulting in about 400,000 amputations and more than 100,000 deaths. Each year, about 46,000 people die and 140,000 people are disabled in India from snakebites by the ‘Big 4’ — the Indian cobra, the common krait, Russell’s viper, and the saw scaled viper.Hence statement 3 is correct.

7. IHS Markit releases which of the following

  1. Housing sector index

  2. Purchasing Manager index

  3. Services Business activity Index

  4. Both b and c

Answer: (d) Both b and c

Explanation:

In NEWS: Recovery on the cards? - THE HINDU

The seasonally adjusted Nikkei India Services Business Activity Index, published by IHS Markit, fell to a one-year low of 50.2 in May, from 51 in April.

The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an economic indicator of business activity, is published by Markit Limited. The index is a survey-based measure in the manufacturing and services sectors. The index figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity and anything below 50 denotes contraction.

8.Freedom fighter Ashfaqullah Khan was sentenced to death in which the following case

  1. Meerut conspiracy case

  2. Kakori train robbery case

  3. Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy case

  4. Muzaffarpur conspiracy case

Answer: (b) Kakori Train robbery case

Explanation: 

In NEWS:UP to build Rs 234-crore zoo named after Ashfaqullah Khan - TIE

The UP Cabinet on Tuesday approved a proposal to set aside Rs 234 crore for construction of a zoological garden named after Shaheed Ashfaqullah Khan in Gorakhpur. The zoo will come up across over 121 acres. A government spokesperson said the objective was to attract tourists and increase employment opportunities.

Freedom fighter Ashfaqullah Khan was sentenced to death along with Ram Prasad Bismil for the Kakori train robbery, commonly known as the Kakori conspiracy of 1925. Hence option c is correct.

9.Consider the following statement about tiger translocation project

  1. The tigers were translocated to Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha

  2. Tiger translocation is approved by National Tiger Conservation authority.

Select the correct option from below

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Nauradehi Sanctuary: Images of three cubs point to success in tiger relocation- TIE

Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary, covering about 1,197 km2 is the largest wildlife sanctuary of Madhya Pradesh state in India. It is a potential site for the Cheetah Reintroduction in India.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Indian wolf is the keystone species of Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary. 

Days after the Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) celebrated a hugely successful decade of reintroduction of big cats, a similar success story has been confirmed here at the Nauradehi Sanctuary where three cubs were seen with their mother in camera trap images for the first time. 

Tigers were last seen nearly a decade ago in the sanctuary, which is spread over more than 1,200 sq kms in Sagar, Damoh and Narsinghpur districts. A tiger from Bandhavgarh and a tigress from Pench reserve were shifted to the sanctuary in April 2018. 

Tiger translocation is approved by National Tiger Conservation authority.Hence statement 2 is correct.

10.How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)(Previous year 2018)

  1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

  2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct:

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b) 2 only

Explanation:

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is a statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Principal functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas.

National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for the purpose of effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing.Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

prelims practice questions jan 8